Here is another one:
The Messiah must be a physical descendant of David.
Yet, how could Jesus meet this requirement since his genealogies in Matthew 1 and Luke 3 show he descended from David through Joseph, who was not his natural father because of the Virgin Birth.
Why giving genialogy of a "father" which is acctually not his own!? To perpetuate that he has fulfilled the prophecy.
To that, Matthew and Luke give two contradictory genealogies for Joseph. They cannot even agree on who the father of Joseph was. Church apologists try to eliminate this discrepancy by suggesting that the genealogy in Luke is actually Mary's, even though Luke says explicitly that it is Joseph's genealogy (Luke 3:23). Christians have had problems reconciling the two genealogies since at least the early fourth century. It was then that Eusebius, a "Church Father," wrote in his "The History of the Church, "each believer has been only too eager to dilate at length on these passages."
Matthew mentions four women in the Joseph's genealogy.
a. Tamar - disguised herself as a harlot to seduce Judah, her father-in-law (Genesis 38:12-19).
b. Rahab - was a harlot who lived in the city of Jericho in Canaan (Joshua 2:1).
c. Ruth - at her mother-in-law Naomi's request, she came secretly to where Boaz was sleeping and spent the night with him. Later Ruth and Boaz were married (Ruth 3:1-14).
d. Bathsheba - became pregnant by King David while she was still married to Uriah (2 Samuel 11:2-5).
To have women mentioned in a genealogy is very unusual. That all four of the women mentioned are guilty of some sort of sexual impropriety cannot be a coincidence. Why would Matthew mention these, and only these, women? The only reason that makes any sense is that Joseph, rather than the Holy Spirit, impregnated Mary prior to their getting married, and that this was known by others who argued that because of this Jesus could not be the Messiah. By mentioning these women in the genealogy Matthew is in effect saying, "The Messiah, who must be a descendant of King David, will have at least four "loose women" in his genealogy, so what difference does one more make?"
That myth is busted. He ain't the seed of David, cause his mother has to be a virgin!
Here is why they had to put the virgin birth into the scene:
Than again, Of all the writers of the New Testament, only Matthew and Luke mention the virgin birth. Had something as miraculous as the virgin birth actually occurred, one would expect that Mark and John would have at least mentioned it in their efforts to convince the world that Jesus was who they were claiming him to be.
The apostle Paul never mentions the virgin birth, even though it would have strengthened his arguments in several places. Instead, where Paul does refer to Jesus' birth, he says that Jesus "was born of the seed of David" (Romans 1:3) and was "born of a woman," not a virgin (Galatians 4:4).
This verse is part of a prophecy that Isaiah relates to King Ahaz regarding the fate of the two kings threatening Judah at that time and the fate of Judah itself. In the original Hebrew, the verse says that a "young woman" will give birth, not a "virgin" which is an entirely different Hebrew word. Hebrew has a specific word, betulah, for a virgin, and a more general word, `almah, for a young woman. The young woman became a virgin only when the Hebrew word was mistranslated into Greek.
This passage obviously has nothing to do with Jesus (who, if this prophecy did apply to him, should have been named Immanuel instead of Jesus).
To explain the Immanuel and not Jesus thing, they do another twicking on the scene, and claim that this ain't name, but a Title! They point to (Isaiah 9) where he speaks of the child of David, and he attributes him few titles like: Wonderful Counselor, [b] Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace. Jeremiah 23:5-6 calls him as JEHOVAH in the Original, but it is translated Our Righteousness.
So, in a book over 3000 pages, and with some time gaps between them for some hunderts till some tousand years, one surely will find the way around to twick things as they fit to them!
But the seed of David and the Virgin birth fit only in the misterious ways of their interpretation!
I wonder, I wonder, yes, I will be hated for this!
The Messiah must be a physical descendant of David.
When your days are over and you rest with your fathers, I will raise up your offspring to succeed you, who will come from your own body, and I will establish his kingdom. 13 He is the one who will build a house for my Name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever.
2 Samuel 7:12,13
2 Samuel 7:12,13
Brothers, I can tell you confidently that the patriarch David died and was buried, and his tomb is here to this day. 30But he was a prophet and knew that God had promised him on oath that he would place one of his descendants on his throne.
Here is Paul, a servant of Christ Jesus, called to be an apostle and set apart for the gospel of God— 2the gospel he promised beforehand through his prophets in the Holy Scriptures 3regarding his Son, who as to his human nature was a descendant of David, 4and who through the Spirit[a] of holiness was declared with power to be the Son of God[b] by his resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord.
Romans 1:3
Romans 1:3
Why giving genialogy of a "father" which is acctually not his own!? To perpetuate that he has fulfilled the prophecy.
To that, Matthew and Luke give two contradictory genealogies for Joseph. They cannot even agree on who the father of Joseph was. Church apologists try to eliminate this discrepancy by suggesting that the genealogy in Luke is actually Mary's, even though Luke says explicitly that it is Joseph's genealogy (Luke 3:23). Christians have had problems reconciling the two genealogies since at least the early fourth century. It was then that Eusebius, a "Church Father," wrote in his "The History of the Church, "each believer has been only too eager to dilate at length on these passages."
Matthew mentions four women in the Joseph's genealogy.
a. Tamar - disguised herself as a harlot to seduce Judah, her father-in-law (Genesis 38:12-19).
b. Rahab - was a harlot who lived in the city of Jericho in Canaan (Joshua 2:1).
c. Ruth - at her mother-in-law Naomi's request, she came secretly to where Boaz was sleeping and spent the night with him. Later Ruth and Boaz were married (Ruth 3:1-14).
d. Bathsheba - became pregnant by King David while she was still married to Uriah (2 Samuel 11:2-5).
To have women mentioned in a genealogy is very unusual. That all four of the women mentioned are guilty of some sort of sexual impropriety cannot be a coincidence. Why would Matthew mention these, and only these, women? The only reason that makes any sense is that Joseph, rather than the Holy Spirit, impregnated Mary prior to their getting married, and that this was known by others who argued that because of this Jesus could not be the Messiah. By mentioning these women in the genealogy Matthew is in effect saying, "The Messiah, who must be a descendant of King David, will have at least four "loose women" in his genealogy, so what difference does one more make?"
That myth is busted. He ain't the seed of David, cause his mother has to be a virgin!
Here is why they had to put the virgin birth into the scene:
Therefore the Lord himself will give you [a] a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and [b] will call him Immanuel
The apostle Paul never mentions the virgin birth, even though it would have strengthened his arguments in several places. Instead, where Paul does refer to Jesus' birth, he says that Jesus "was born of the seed of David" (Romans 1:3) and was "born of a woman," not a virgin (Galatians 4:4).
This verse is part of a prophecy that Isaiah relates to King Ahaz regarding the fate of the two kings threatening Judah at that time and the fate of Judah itself. In the original Hebrew, the verse says that a "young woman" will give birth, not a "virgin" which is an entirely different Hebrew word. Hebrew has a specific word, betulah, for a virgin, and a more general word, `almah, for a young woman. The young woman became a virgin only when the Hebrew word was mistranslated into Greek.
This passage obviously has nothing to do with Jesus (who, if this prophecy did apply to him, should have been named Immanuel instead of Jesus).
To explain the Immanuel and not Jesus thing, they do another twicking on the scene, and claim that this ain't name, but a Title! They point to (Isaiah 9) where he speaks of the child of David, and he attributes him few titles like: Wonderful Counselor, [b] Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace. Jeremiah 23:5-6 calls him as JEHOVAH in the Original, but it is translated Our Righteousness.
So, in a book over 3000 pages, and with some time gaps between them for some hunderts till some tousand years, one surely will find the way around to twick things as they fit to them!
But the seed of David and the Virgin birth fit only in the misterious ways of their interpretation!
I wonder, I wonder, yes, I will be hated for this!
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