Originally posted by Risto the Great
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The only thing I said (I repeat) is that we have no proof that ancient Macedonian existed. That naturally means we have no proof that it did not exist either. You make a big fuss about that. And for crying out loud, I understood always what the punchline was going to be when you introduced Slavic languages and I always found it irrelevant. And I still do. It is as irrelevant as me saying: We know that Thrak and Etruskian (both non existing now) existed because we found inscripitions in those languages. So that proves that ancient Macedonian (of which we found no inscriptions) did not exist because we did not find written evidence ? Of course not. (read back a few times if you have difficulties to understand that). It should make us wonder though and ask the question why Macedonian was not recorded and those 2 were (both using Greek alfabet partly) but that's about the only thing we can say. It is as irrelevant for this discussian as Slavic languages.
I have also not heard a plausible explanation (the 'French at the Russian court' equals 'Greek / Hellenic at the Macedonian court' theory you unsucessfully introduced is no explanation either) why a dominant power would not introduce their language elsewhere instead of the other way around. Again, going back to your 'French at the Russian court example'; while Russian aristocrats spoke French too, they spread only Russian to territories that fell under Russian influence. No French.
Not only did Macedonians not introduce their own language which would be the most logical thing, it mysteriously disappeared sometime (when and why we don't know either), they then spread the language of the civilization you claim they beat in battle.
Then you would say that Greek happened to be the 'lingua franca' which is not true either. That happened primarily because they introduced and spread the Greek language (regardless whether you find Hellenic or Koine a more accurate description). No Macedonian victories would have meant no spread of Hellinism and that would have meant no spread of the Greek language. It's no coincidence Greek became the 'lingua franca'
Oh, and please don't twist my words. I have never claimed that modern Greek is exactly the same ancient Macedonian. Modern Greek is the end result of Greek / Hellenic languages. Languages evolve. I consider the ancient Macedonian language to be one of those Hellenic languages / dialects before a standardisation took place that we call Koine.
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