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Lets again Look at the Macedonian prisoners in the Greek civil war.
So they would not have been tortured as an act of punishment or to extort information. So why were they tortured? what was there crime? was it simply for having a Macedonian consciousness?
So a "Public Security Committee" (A Kangaroo Court) which would have been made up of Fascist/anti Macedonian committee members. Its not that they would have recieved a fair trial from a official court which would have been run by the monarchofascist government anyway. If you were a Macedonian Man Women or child you were automaticly a criminal by the looks of things.
Let me finally make these points,
If the torture of the Macedonian prisoners was systematically employed not to obtain the prisoner's confessions of alleged crimes, (There was no crime), why were they tortured? It was rather to make them sign declarations of repentance. Woman in particular were indoctrinated in these camps as "Greek women", and then sign in order to return to there homes. This was the usual exhortation of the (Male) officers. The female detainees were always inscribed within the domain of family relations; The appeal was to daughters, mothers, or wives as representatives of Greek women. Were as if you refused and did not crack, you would remain for further treatment and instead of being known as "Greeks" and "Mothers", you would remain as "Bulgarians" and "whores", and had there children taken away from them.
These camps were clearly a place for indoctrination (Hellenization) for many women, Men and Children. Nothing to do with communism or punishment for any crime.
In the Greek Civil War, solitary confinement was not necessarily used as a measure of punishment. Nor was torture always a means to extort information from the inmate. At this point, as Edward Peters argues, lies the difference between torture in earlier times and torture in the twentieth century. From the thirteenth to the eighteenth century, torture was part of the legal procedure within the framework of confession, that is a means to obtain the victim's confession. The use of torture in the twentieth century was aimed not at the victim's information but at the person of the victim. During the Greek Civil War torture was systematically employed not to obtain the prisoner's confessions of alleged crimes, rather to make them sign declarations of repentance. The authorities' aim was to deconstruct prisoners subjectivity and dissolve their collectivity.
So they would not have been tortured as an act of punishment or to extort information. So why were they tortured? what was there crime? was it simply for having a Macedonian consciousness?
Female political detainees were first interned on the island Chios and then on Trikeri. There status was closer to that of the exiles: They have not been convicted by courts but by the public security committees.
http://www.macedoniantruth.org/forum...2&postcount=72
http://www.macedoniantruth.org/forum...2&postcount=72
Let me finally make these points,
If the torture of the Macedonian prisoners was systematically employed not to obtain the prisoner's confessions of alleged crimes, (There was no crime), why were they tortured? It was rather to make them sign declarations of repentance. Woman in particular were indoctrinated in these camps as "Greek women", and then sign in order to return to there homes. This was the usual exhortation of the (Male) officers. The female detainees were always inscribed within the domain of family relations; The appeal was to daughters, mothers, or wives as representatives of Greek women. Were as if you refused and did not crack, you would remain for further treatment and instead of being known as "Greeks" and "Mothers", you would remain as "Bulgarians" and "whores", and had there children taken away from them.
These camps were clearly a place for indoctrination (Hellenization) for many women, Men and Children. Nothing to do with communism or punishment for any crime.
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