Originally posted by Slovak/Anomaly/Tomas
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but let's examine your second, surprisingly certain statement...
any CITATION please..which CONFIRMS this assumption?
And something else..was Illyrian similar to Thracian? how r you so sure?
Any CITATION again ?
Or just anything but Greek ,is enough..?
Nothing direct, only a complex academic study would be able to explain that, reason why is because we have no written evidence of the Macedonian language.
Without a written example of the ancient Macedonian we cannot know what language they spoke.
Without a written example of the ancient Macedonian we cannot know what language they spoke.
(not to mention Pella's katadesmos ,or the 6000 inscriptions in attic or Koene Greek)
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