Why all the names of the cities of the people and months and gods were greek?

[George S.]

RtG is that what that avatar of bill is holding the baby whils't the zena out working.There is a saying whil'st the zenkar is around you have to lock up your daughters.Also in keeping with this thread i don't think zenkar is a greek word it's definitely maxedonian.

[George S.]

The Olympian false Gods

By Samson Stanislavsky, Phd



Greeks of today and their paid “Hellenistic” supporters and French creators of “Hellenism” insist that Macedonians and Greeks are one and the same race and ethnos, because they worshiped the same Gods and spoke the same language. This view is nothing further from the truth.

First of all, all the Olympic Gods were Egyptian deities imported to Athens by merchants. They only changed their names from Egyptian to Athenian language.

Macedonians did not worship any of the Olympic gods; actually they did not worship any gods.

We have to look at none other than Aristotle himself, the greatest philosopher ever to live on this planet. Aristotle expressed doubts on the value to worship those immoral notions living on the mountain Olympus and ridiculed them. For his disrespect towards the Olympian Gods he was sentenced to death by the Athenian elders for insulting their false religion.

Aristotle, the Macedonian philosopher and teacher of Alexander the Great, escaped execution by fleeing Athens and returning to his native Macedonian city Staggira.

In this instance he made his famous statement about the Athenians and their criminal record.

“I don’t want to give the opportunity to the Athenians to commit a third crime against philosophy” he uttered.

1. They poisoned Socrates the Athenian philosopher for telling them the truth. Socrates was famous for saying: Man, know thyself.

2. The second crime against philosophy of the Athenians was that they condemned Protagoras, the Macedonian philosopher from Abdera, Macedonia, for expressing doubts about the morality of the Olympian gods. He was condemned to death, fled in his boat and died in a sea storm.

3. Aristotle fled and died of natural causes at age 62.

Now here is what Protagoras had to say about the Olympian Gods, according to the book: “The Greek Philosophers, from Thales to Aristotle”, by W.K.C. Guthrie

Doubts have been cast upon the Olympian deities of the Greek polis, however, long before the time of Alexander the Great. In the world of fifth-century Greece, philosophers and playwrights already questioned the virtues and implicitly, the existence of gods and goddesses who were portrayed, with anthropomorphic vividness, as lustful, jealous, malevolent immortals. The cities demanded to know how one could worship a god like Zeus. According to the Greek myths, Zeus dethroned his titanic father Kronos, pursued and ravished, often while in bestial disguise, many a beautiful woman, and resorted to countless stratagems in order to evade his suspicious wife Hera. Such behaviour on the part of the Olympians raised serious theological doubts in the minds of the more reflective people.

Amongst the philosophers and professional thinkers of the fifth century, a number of free thinkers offered rationalistic interpretations of religion and the gods to explain the existence and nature of the tarnished Olympians. Some philosophers, like the Protagoras of Abdera in Macedonia, embraced agnosticism. In his work On Gods, Peri Theon, Protagoras declares that he is unable to say whether the gods actually exist, and if they do, of what sort they might be. For this statement the Athenians brought him to trial and condemned him to death. While Protagoras escaped the Athenians, he could not evade the power of mighty Poseidon, and died in a ship wreck.

[George S.]

Greece was created early in the eighteenth century while Macedonia predated it by more than two thousand years! Following the creation of the Greek State in 1829 AD, additional territories were annexed in 1912 which included all of today’s northern Greece. For the first time in all history, that which was always Macedonian (even under the absolute rule of the Ottoman Empire) then became Greek and the Macedonian identity was abolished then reintroduced early in the 1980's following the discovery of Philip II of Macedonia's gravesite, but subordinated to a drastically enlarged new Greek identity!



Regretfully, many distortions are presented as facts when not! Where, when and/or how did the term Greek originate? While there were many ancient Roman references to the “Gratsi”, a term liberally used as a derogatory reference referring to a lower and uneducated class of people from the City States. There appears to be no other logical explanation as to the origin of this name other than such relating to these inhabitants.



The origin of the word "Hellenic" and/or "Eleni" historically, the earliest reference to such appears to have been initiated by the Roman author, Arrian who wrote in the first century AD, about the “Major Battles of Alexander” then initiated the term ”Hellenic Period”, as a specific period in time not as a reference to a people!



As a subject History is very much in question since far too often (as taught) the class content does not properly address many known facts yet, based upon many false previously created political presumptions and inadvertently promoting questionable distortions created (when Greece became a nation) to justify specific actions which were initiated by the expansionist monarchies then resulting in such discriminatory reactions!



Previous to the creation of the Modern Greek state, many of its resultant inhabitants were perpetually at war, usually with each other and on rare occasion, united against a greater (outside) enemy such as the Persians and Macedonians.

[Akzion]

You see, that word i gave you "έλαζ" or "έλαδ" was used by the Ancient Greeks meaning "BLACK" according to Beardsley, G.H, 1929 The Negro in Greek and Roman Civilization: A Study of the Ethiopian Type, The John Hopkins University Press, Baltimore.

http://www.white-history.com/greece_negroes.htm

I would argue with him (if he is still alive) but i know who i would believe if you had an debate with him. Sorry dude, but i don't know what level of Education you have.

I can reconfirm what I said in post#186 or Agamoi Thytai said in post#188. It's melas, not elas, elaz or elad. There are two explanations:
(a) A weak one. The word is mistyped in the original book (of Beardsley or whoever it is)
(b) A more possible one. There are mistakes or code problems with the appearance and compatibility of Ancient Greek characters in the supremacist website you provided (http://www.white-history.com/greece_negroes.htm). I also noticed mistakes in the three lines verse of Menander (zeta-characters appear where they shouldn’t and other problems).
Apparently this is not a reliable website and it tries to prove the exact opposite thing than the one you imply.
You can ask about elas- melas anywhere you like, from souvlaki sellers in the streets of Australia to Oxford University professors. It’s standard knowledge.

[Agamoi Thytai]

Thanks for that explanation. No i am not that familiar with Greek. But you have just cleared up for me more, that Modern Greek, is Nothing like Ancient Greek. Chalk and Cheese.

I have cleared it up for you but you didn't grasp it:There is no word ending in the consonants ζ or δ in both ancient and modern Greek,the only final consonants being ν,ς and ρ,(though the last one only in very few words of modern Greek).As for the relation between ancient and modern Greek,the view of qualified linguists is more important than of yours:

http://books.google.com/books?id=b55B1J7I99AC&pg=PR7

You see, that word i gave you "έλαζ" or "έλαδ" was used by the Ancient Greeks meaning "BLACK" according to Beardsley, G.H, 1929 The Negro in Greek and Roman Civilization: A Study of the Ethiopian Type, The John Hopkins University Press, Baltimore.
http://www.white-history.com/greece_negroes.htm

Sorry for dissappointing you Bill,but it seems your source is an ignorant neo-nazi white supremacist who has not any clue of ancient Greek.So he claims that ancient Greeks used the words "έλαζ" or "έλαδ" to describe black people,because it was writen by a certain Beardsley G.H in a certain book called "The Negro in Greek and Roman Civilization: A Study of the Ethiopian Type, The John Hopkins University Press, Baltimore",1929.We are obviously talking about this book:

http://www.archive.org/details/ethiopianingreek00bear

with the slight difference that the word "Negro" is replaced by "Ethiopian" and it was published inn 1922 instead of 1929.I've searched all its pages one by one and there is nowher any mention of these words,"έλαζ" or "έλαδ".Instead there is mentioned in page 7 that Greeks always used the compound word "αιθίωψ" (from αίθω=burn and ώψ=face,hence "Ethiopia") to denote black people:

http://www.archive.org/stream/ethiopianingreek00bear#page/7/mode/1up

http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=Ethiop

Also in page 48 he mentions that another word which Greeks used for "black" was "μέλας":

http://www.archive.org/stream/ethiopianingreek00bear#page/48/mode/1up

Now can you find where exactly did G.H.Beardsley mentioned these words,"έλαζ" or "έλαδ"?You will nowhere in that book find these words,because your white-supremacist genius misquoted these passages of Beardsley's book since he doesn't know Greek,otherwise he just invented them.
And few info about this website,http://www.white-history.com/greece_negroes.htm
It's owned by Arthur Kemp,writer of this:

http://books.google.com/books?id=feI7NwAACAAJ&dq=march+of+the+titans+a+history+of+the+white+race&hl=el&ei=owkmTeXGNtG14QaJw-G2CQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CCUQ6AEwAA

And who is this guy:

Arthur Benjamin Kemp (born September 14, 1962) is a writer, speaker, British activist, and political figure from South Africa, who currently works as the Foreign Affairs Spokesperson for the British National Party and is responsible for the content of that party's website. His most noted works are March of the Titans: a History of the White Race and Victory or Violence: the Story of the AWB.
Kemp is known for his philosophy of race, which is broadly speaking in favour of white separatism, and he is a strong critic of miscegenation. He also asserts that race has been the key factor in determining human history, and says that the numerical presence of racially similar individuals in a geographical region determines the nature of a society.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arthur_Kemp

This is the party whose spokesman is Arthur Kemp:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/British_National_Party

No surprise that he wrote such crap:

Most importantly of all, revealed in this work is the one true cause of the rise and fall of the world's greatest empires - that all civilizations rise and fall according to their racial homogeneity and nothing else - a nation can survive wars, defeats, natural catastrophes, but not racial dissolution.

http://www.white-history.com/index.htm

[Agamoi Thytai]

Agamoi Thytai

Are you referring to your book references as credible evidence?

Why not?These books were writen by ancient authors,not by contemporary Greeks.(I said that because some of your compatriots quote as credible evidence books of Gandeto and other Macedonian authors.

If so, then please explain the credibility of the book reference you quoted in your post of 10:33am regarding :-
“Hieron of Syracuse,they say,was a Philhellene”

http://books.google.com/books?id=dma9h97GkvUC&pg=PA281

The below description, direct from the site, gives an insight into what the book is about:-

Aelian's Historical Miscellany is a pleasurable example of light reading for Romans of the early third century

And what matters that?This description of Aelian's history was not writen by him.The original title of his work was Historical Miscellany.
Are we going now to draw our conclusions on this certain question (whether the term "Philhellene" was really applied only to non-Greeks or not) not by what ancient authors wrote themselves but by how modern philologists describe their works?That's the most lame argument i've ever heard!

[makedonche]

Agamoi Thytai

Why not?These books were writen by ancient authors,not by contemporary Greeks.(I said that because some of your compatriots quote as credible evidence books of Gandeto and other Macedonian authors.

Here's why not:-
[QUOTEAelian's Historical Miscellany is a pleasurable example of light reading for Romans of the early third century

][/QUOTE]

And what matters that?This description of Aelian's history was not writen by him.The original title of his work was Historical Miscellany.
Are we going now to draw our conclusions on this certain question (whether the term "Philhellene" was really applied only to non-Greeks or not) not by what ancient authors wrote themselves but by how modern philologists describe their works?That's the most lame argument i've ever heard!

The most lame argument youv'e ever heard, you are only too willing to replicate by attempting to give credibility to " A pleasurable example of light reading"
This is only one example of your uncorroborated attempt to use this type of "light reading" as substantial evidence - once I saw this I immediately disregarded any other references you have published/referred to, as your credibility has now come into serious contention! Not only that but you seem to forget where you are and the hospitality you have been afforded, should you wish to contribute to the Macedonian Truth please do so constructively because from what I read in your posts it amounts to spamming and trolling!

[Onur]

Most importantly of all, revealed in this work is the one true cause of the rise and fall of the world's greatest empires - that all civilizations rise and fall according to their racial homogeneity and nothing else - a nation can survive wars, defeats, natural catastrophes, but not racial dissolution.
http://www.white-history.com/index.htm

WOW!!! I`ve learned a lot from your link!!! Yes, this was surely the "most important of all"

the Huns had started on a limited scale to physically integrate with sections of the peoples they had conquered. Traces of the Mongolian influence can still be seen amongst some peoples in eastern Europe (the so called "Slavic look" which in fact is not Slavic at all, but mixed Mongolian/Slavic.)

Within 350 years the Jews had moved from a defeated and hated enemy of Rome, into being wealthy citizens of Rome itself. The change in the make-up of the Roman population from the original Nordic/Alpine/Mediterranean into a mixed White/non-White racial group was the real reason why Rome "fell". This is also the reason why today some Italians, particularly in the south of that country, have a distinctive "olive" appearance

The Magyars were an Asiatic race ravaging wide areas of central Europe. Although they were to be ultimately driven out, a small number of their genes remained behind in the areas they subjugated - the origin of the small number of slightly Asiatic looking southern Slavs. the impact of the Magyars was so great that in the Hungarian language to this day, the name for Hungary and Hungarian is still Magyar - although the original Asiatic Magyars have long since vanished.

Turks were the last of the Asian invaders of Europe to use violence as their passport of entry, but they were also significant for another reason: the sheer length of the time of their occupation of the Balkans left a large number of the inhabitants of the Balkan peoples with Turkish blood in their veins, as can be seen to this day, as many inhabitants of the region distinctly darker than other Balkan residents.

Ataturk then launched a program of modernization in his country, using large numbers of Europeans in this process. It was a supreme act of irony that a White man eventually led the non-White Turks into the modern world - a mixed race who had been responsible for the longest and most effective race war against Europe till that time.

Huns created the so-called Slavic look?!!! ehm...

Original Nordic/Alpine population of Roman empire?!! lol wth? this is like the stupid nordic ancient Greeks theory

Jewish genes caused western Roman Empire to fall??? umm..

Mongolic Magyars vanished but nevertheless they left their name and language??(I think this is quite like Indigen`s famous "Few 100 mongolic Turks assimilated millions of pure white Aryans in Anatolia" theory)

Best one is the so-called irony of white man creating a country for non-white Turks haha



These stuff are just crap. Do you think you learn something from those Agamoi Thytai?

[Agamoi Thytai]

It would have been a good argument for u BUT if there were no other quotes from Polybius. Lets take rhis one again:

Polybius
(Book XVIII. 5) Philip V from Macedon responds to the Greek and Roman demands:
"But what is most outrageous of all is that they should attempt to put themselves on the same footing as the Romans and demand that the Macedonians should withdraw from the whole of Greece. To use such language is arrogant enough in the first place, but while we may endure this from the Romans, it is quite intolerable coming from the Aetolians. In any case,' he continued, 'what is this Greece which you demand that I should evacuate, and how do you define Greece? Certainly most of the Aetolians themselves are not Greeks! The countries of the Agraae, the Apodotea, and the Aphilochians cannot be regarded as Greek. So do you allow me to remain in those territories.

How will u explain this?

Yeah,and few lines below Philip also states this:

"For on many occasions when I and the other Greeks sent embassies to you..."

http://penelope.uchicago.edu/Thayer/E/Roman/Texts/Polybius/18*.html

Not just that Macedonia is not considered to be Greek but also Aetolia, Agrae, Apodotea, Amphilocia are settled with non Greeks!

Oh,let me reveal to you another dirty Greek secret:neither Boetians,Thessalians and Eleans were Greek!

http://books.google.com/books?id=zTVJAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA551&dq=And+when+he+was+asked+again,+according+to+the+account+given+by+Hegesander,+which+were+the+greatest+barbarians,+the+Boeotians+or+the+Thessalians,+Stratonicus+said,%E2%80%9D+The+Eleans&hl=el&ei=AmYmTbX9LMet8gP0uPDPAg&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CCUQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=And%20when%20he%20was%20asked%20again%2C%20according%20to%20the%20account%20given%20by%20Hegesander%2C%20which%20were%20the%20greatest%20barbarians%2C%20the%20Boeotians%20or%20the%20Thessalians%2C%20Stratonicus%20said%2C%E2%80%9D%20The%20Eleans&f=false

So Philip was playing the same old Greek tricks to accuse other fellow Greeks of "being barbarians",since it suited his agenda.

U have nothing here. Macedonians were defending their own land and with that also stopping the advance of barbarian armies to the south.

Isn't it apparent that if Macedonians were considered as barbarians themselves it would be meaningless to say they protected Greece from barbarians?

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/...3Achapter%3D37

A speech for persuation of some greek city not to take side with Romans against Macedonians. I would like to know to whom is this speech addressed,

It was not a Macedonian who made that statement but Lyciscus the Acarnanian ambassador talking to Cleonicus and Chlaeneas,the Aetolian envoys,at the assembly of Sparta:

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0234%3Abook%3D9%3Achapter%3D32

maybe the kindred blood is for the pelasgian part of the blood in the Greeks.

That's an assumption with no basis at all.If one says Bavarians and Prussians or Calabrians and Sicilians are people of kindred blood,he certainly refers to their common German or Italian ancestry,not to any imaginary Indoeuropean or Celtic or whatever else one can imagine origin.

Here is a nother quote from Polybius:

[Book XVIII, 1] Philip V from Macedon invites Flamininus (Roman commander) to explain what he, Philip, should do to have peace:
"The Roman general replied that his duty dictated an answer which was both simple and clear. He demanded that Philip should withdraw from the whole of Greece, restore to each of the states the prisoners and deserters he was holding, hand over to the Romans the region of Illyria which he had seized after the treaty that had been made in Epirus, and so on...."

Here we have clear distinction among Macedonia and Greece. U cannot take just few quotes u like from some author and ignore the others u don’t like…

This distinction is made by a Roman,whose intension was to keep Greeks divided,so it's not a reliable person.Anyway,this distinction practically meant nothing,it was solely out of geographic reasons,since i've showed that even Peloponnesus and Thessaly were in many occassions excluded from Greece.

Fits in the context of the Argive and Divine origin of Alexander. Let us see some more quotes from Plutarch:

BY A MACEDONIAN ARES!!! Only a drowing can be more clear than this, if Macedonians where Greeks why would they have their own Ares…

What own Ares?Macedonians worshiped the same Ares with all Greeks.Besides,it's oxymoron trying to prove Macedonians were not Greeks using Plutarch!Plutarch wrote the biographies of Greek and Roman great men in comparison,and among the Greeks he included in his list was not only Alexander (whom you claim he considered Greek because of his Argive origin) but also Demetrius the Besieger,who didn't descend from the Argead dynasty:

http://books.google.ca/books?id=Lnur0BjQO2oC&pg=PP1&dq=age+of+alexander+plutarch&ei=BkDUSOHSGKS2yQTa4sTTAw&hl=el&sig=ACfU3U2N-3YPIvUw_UVcs4SLzIBvmJWYiw#PPP1,M1

These quotes of Plutarch prove thta he considered all Macedonians as Greeks:

"Taxiles, however, persuaded Calanus to wait upon Alexander. His
proper name was Sphines, but because he was wont to say Cale, which in the Indian tongue is a form of salutation to those he met with
anywhere, the Greeks called him Calanus"

http://www.greektexts.com/library/Plutarch/Alexander/eng/109.html

Note that this happened in India,where Alexander had only the Macedonian troops,since he had earlier dismissed the Greek allies.So who were those Greeks mentioned by Plutarch?

"and Cassander, who had lately arrived, and had been bred up in Greek manners, the first time he saw some of the barbarians adore the king could not forbear laughing at it aloud, which so incensed Alexander he took him by the hair with both hands and dashed his head against the wall"

http://www.greektexts.com/library/Plutarch/Alexander/eng/113.html

Macedonians were bred up in Greek manners

"To the barbarians he carried himself very haughtily, as if he were fully persuaded of his divine birth and parentage; but to the Grecians more moderately, and with less affectation of divinity"

http://www.greektexts.com/library/Plutarch/Alexander/eng/88.html

Plutarch here speaks of Alexander's demand to be adored like a God,as it was the Persian habit.It's interesting that according to Plutarch,Alexander's subjects were barbarians (Persians and other Asians,and Greeks.Why aren't there Macedonians mentioned at all?Did Plutarch consider them as barbarians?Certainly not,since he clearly distinguished them from barbarians before.So he included them among the Greeks.

That is because Thessaly,Epirus,Acarnania where inhabited by a majority of non Greeks (remember the quote from Polybius).
Many people in Greece spoke a barbarian language, because they preserved their old Pelasgian language.

These are very weird theories,backed by no evidence and supported by no serious historian outside Macedonia.

And u think that Thrasymachus here speaks only about Archelaus,and he doesn’t mention the whole Macedonian people. Maybe, but see this:

Was it disaster for the Macedonians?! No, because they were not Greeks 

Such disasters often befell the Greeks,when they were enslaved by the Athenians,the Spartans or the Thebans,there are numerous similar quotes in ancient Greek texts.However not all Greeks held similar view about that "disaster":

"At that crisis Philip volunteered his assistance; destroyed the tyrants, secured the temple, and became the author of freedom to the Greeks, as is testified even to posterity by the facts For Philip was unanimously elected general-in-chief by land and sea, not, as my opponent ventured to assert, as one who had wronged Thessaly; but on the ground of his being a benefactor of Greece: an honour which no one had previously obtained."

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0234%3Abook%3D9%3Achapter%3D33

"Again, you bitterly denounced Alexander, because,
when he believed himself to be wronged, he punished Thebes: but of his having exacted vengeance of the Persians for their outrages on all the Greeks you made no mention at all; nor of his having released us all in common from heavy miseries, by enslaving the barbarians, and depriving them of the supplies which they used for the ruin of the Greeks,—sometimes pitting the Athenians against the ancestors of these gentlemen here, at another the Thebans; nor finally of his having subjected Asia to the Greeks".

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0234%3Abook%3D9%3Achapter%3D34

Borza is one of the greatest specialist of ancient Macedonia and u may dislike him as much as u like that dose not prove u nothing. Borza have great research about the so called “hellenization” , maybe u should find that read it and give some opinion about that..

Any link to this?

[Bill77]

Most importantly of all, revealed in this work is the one true cause of the rise and fall of the world's greatest empires - that all civilizations rise and fall according to their racial homogeneity and nothing else - a nation can survive wars, defeats, natural catastrophes, but not racial dissolution.
http://www.white-history.com/index.htm

I totally agree.
Although ancient Greece was not an empire, this would be the beginning of the fall of the Negro civilization (as the original founders) in Ancient Greece.

Crossings between Negro and whites in ancient Greece were not uncommon. Aristotle mentions a woman of Elis whose daughter by a Negro was not Negroid but whose grandson was.

Plutarch relates a similar story about a Greek woman whose black baby caused her to be accused of adultery, although an investigation of her lineage revealed that she was the great granddaughter of an Ethiopian.

Mixture between blacks and whites in the Greek world is confirmed by the evidence of sculpture. A vase of a temple boy from Olynthus is described by Robinson as a boy with "almost
negroid features."

Another Olynthus head whose features Robinson also regards as "almost
negroid" can be explained in terms of race mixture.
Reference has already been made to a mulatto priest of Isis whose racial stock has been analyzed as follows: " ...cet homme, dont le
crâne appartient au type de l'Asie Mineure et dont le bas du visage et le cou sont ceux d'un nčgre, est évidemment d'une race mixte; tout bien considéré nous avons affaire ŕ un mulâtre."
The herm of Memnon, according to Graindor, reveals that this pupil of Herodes Atticus was "de race métisse mais avec prédominance du type nčgre du Nord de l'Afrique, de la Nubie ou de l'Abyssinie."

So clearly this race mixture over centuries would have caused the pure Black race to become extinct.

Lucian Adv. Indoctum 28. notes the proverbial ΑιθοΠα ομηχειν
which means to “wash an Ethiopian white”.

I suppose thats what the new comers did "ΑιθοΠα ομηχειν" Washed an Ethiopian white.


But then came Phillip with his son Alexander, the mighty Macedonians. Who changed Ancient Greek civilization again,

This day put an end to the glorious sovereignty and ancient liberty of all Greece.................(Justinus)

Then later on down the track, after the
Macedonian Empire

Roman Empire

Byzantine empire (which during this period the true Hellenic Blood disappeared)

we have this,

It was during these centuries, that what remained, if indeed anything remained, of even degenerate Hellenic blood absorbed or was absorbed into that of the Slav……Indeed, the Albanians appear to have done for Greece in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries something like that which that Sclavonians had done in the sixth and seventh
(A Monthly Review – Greece, Spoilt Child of Europe)

Now all we have left is another Greek Myth. "A Greek"

[makedonche]

Agamoi Thytai

A quote from a section of your previous post:-
[QUOTE"At that crisis Philip volunteered his assistance; destroyed the tyrants, secured the temple, and became the author of freedom to the Greeks][/QUOTE]

If Phiilp was Greek surely he would have become "the author of freedom for the Greeks, not to the Greeks

[George S.]

How about the black athena & black people roaming throuhout greece.

[Agamoi Thytai]

Agamoi Thytai



Here's why not:-
[QUOTEAelian's Historical Miscellany is a pleasurable example of light reading for Romans of the early third century





The most lame argument youv'e ever heard, you are only too willing to replicate by attempting to give credibility to " A pleasurable example of light reading"

It's nevertheless a first hand testimony on the matter in question (whether the term "Philhellene" was used only for non-Greeks) either you like it or not.After all,i've shown you other similar quotes from "serious" authors (Isocrates,Xenophon and Dio Chrysostom-since you seem to distinguish between "non serious" and "serious" authors) that back my claim.,unless you consider that even the aforementioned authors constitute "pleasurable examples of light reading".In that case,i shall play my strongest card,quoting Plato. (Hell,i don't think you wouldn't take seriously a philosopher like him and label Plato's "Republic" as another sample of "pleasurable light reading"!).
Here Plato says that the founders of a Hellenic city should be Philhellenes and consider all of Hellas as their homeland:

“Well, then,” said I, “is not the city that you are founding to be a Greek city?” “It must be,” he said. “Will they then not be good and gentle?” “Indeed they will.” “And won't they be PHILHELLENES,1 lovers of Greeks, and will they not regard all Greece as their own and not renounce their part in the holy places common to all Greeks ?” “Most certainly.” “Will they not then regard any difference with Greeks who are their own people as a form of faction and refuse even to speak of it as war?

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0168%3Abook%3D5%3Asection%3D470e

(Press the Greek text load button to see the word in Greek too,"φιλέλληνες").

[Agamoi Thytai]

I totally agree.

I am not surprised,Bill!Why you don't suscribe to Arthur Kemp's National Party?

Although ancient Greece was not an empire, this would be the beginning of the fall of the Negro civilization (as the original founders) in Ancient Greece.

And what was the cause of the Macedonian downfall,if you don't mind?If Greeks really got that heavily mixed with black (and of other races too) slaves as you claim,how is it possible that ancient Macedonians,whom you claim as your ancestors,escaped that fate?

[ArMakedon]

I am not surprised,Bill!Why you don't suscribe in Arthur Kept's National Party?

And what was the cause of the Macedonian downfall,if you don't mind?If Greeks really got that heavily mixed with black (and of other races too) slaves as you claim,how is it possible that ancient Macedonians,whom you claim as your ancestors,escaped that fate?

Don't shit around about mine friend Arthur Kemp, Nigger!!!