question about the balkan wars

[nushevski77]

post deleted

[Liberator of Makedonija]

Originally Posted by nushevski77

im not to knowledgeable about the first and second balkan wars, so I have a couple questions.

1) was macedonia represented at the treaty of Bucharest? if no why not?

2) why is Macedonia not mentioned on wikipedia

3) why did Macedonia not achieve sovereignty and was partitioned?

1. No because it was a part of the Ottoman Empire and not an independent state, therefore it had no official representation though Macedonians did send petitions to the conference.

2. Likely because it's been collated with other Ottoman territories and there is little need to single it out, this is either intentional or the work of our keyboard warrior neighbours.

3. Because we were partitioned by the neighbouring states who had no desire to allow an independent Macedonia to flourish. The Great Powers also preferred partition as they feared such a wealthy and prosperous region being independent of them or their proxies.

[Amphipolis]

Originally Posted by nushevski77

im not to knowledgeable about the first and second balkan wars, so I have a couple questions.

1) was macedonia represented at the treaty of Bucharest? if no why not?

2) why is Macedonia not mentioned on wikipedia

3) why did Macedonia not achieve sovereignty and was partitioned?

You should probably ask why Albania DID achieve sovereignty instead and how you differ.

[Liberator of Makedonija]

Originally Posted by Amphipolis

You should probably ask why Albania DID achieve sovereignty instead and how you differ.

Albania was granted soverignty to prevent Serbian expansion to the Adriatic. The state the Albanians got was much smaller than they had hoped for and today many Albanian nationalists still regard it as a betrayal.