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Old 05-18-2021, 01:12 PM   #35
Carlin
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Soldier of Macedon View Post
Taking the above into account, do you believe Romanians were using the Roman endonym all throughout this period, prior to being recorded as such? If so, and if they were the majority, why do you think they weren’t mentioned as a notable population in that region until much later? Also, why did Eastern Romance become more numerical in Dacia than it did in (the rest of) the Balkans?
I believe so. There is nothing that would point to ... otherwise. Romanians, Macedonian Vlachs, Istro-Romanians, Arvanitovlachs, etc. all use some form of a "Roman" endonym. Nobody taught the Arvanitovlachs to call themselves "Romans" (R'm'n).

I honestly don't know. It's likely that populations south of the "Danube" reinforced the Romanian population in Dacia. There is numerous medieval references to "Vlachs" living in Bulgaria or Thrace (and in Timok/eastern Serbia). That would be pure speculation on my part.

I don't know why Eastern Romance became dominant in Dacia. That would be a million dollar question. Probably as simple as Romanian-speakers achieving some form of cultural "dominance" in Dacia - as opposed to south of the Danube.

Quote:
In my previous post, I explain why, on linguistics grounds, I thought it was unlikely that Proto-Romanian developed both south (e.g., Macedonia) and north (i.e., Dacia) of the Danube concurrently. What is your opinion on that explanation, given your tentative stance to the contrary?
I believe that is correct. Proto-Romanian developed in "one area" only, whether that is in Macedonia or in Dacia. Various Vlach dialects point to a single common origin.

Again, some scholars believe that the area in question is Skopje-Nish-Sofia "triangle" and the adjacent territories.
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