Vuk automatically assumed the people of Bosnia to be pure Slavs. This could hardly be his fault as he was of limited education, and the fact that Slovophilism was in vogue and necessary at the time. Today we know that the people of Bosnia are not pure Slavs and are racially dissimmilar to Slavs.
But the Illyrians spoke Slavic or proto-Slavic? So the Illyrians spoke this language before the Slavs migrated south?
So what is the meaning here?
By the way, I don't doubt that Western people, the enemy of Eastern peoples, have for centuries have perverted history.
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