Notice that Philotas was rediculing the ordinary Macedonian Troops who were from peasantry descent calling them Phrygians and Paflagonians
Why would he do that, unless to be called Brygian of Pelesgian was a cultural sleight of some kind?
The whole thing pisses me off. There is absolutely no evidence or even suggestion that a translator is being used from a Greek dialect to Koine, and given the use of translators in other instances, I find this guys agreement that this point is basically sound to be a massive stretch of the facts.
Why would he do that, unless to be called Brygian of Pelesgian was a cultural sleight of some kind?
The whole thing pisses me off. There is absolutely no evidence or even suggestion that a translator is being used from a Greek dialect to Koine, and given the use of translators in other instances, I find this guys agreement that this point is basically sound to be a massive stretch of the facts.
if you think so
Phrygians were living along the Macedonians for many centuries, and for some reason part of them moved to Anadolia. It is thought that a bulk of Macedonians comprised of Phrygian Element.
So you might call this sleight, cause the wanna be Greek Philotas considered him of higher cultural level.
Alexander and the Royals of his employed Koine, it is a fact, and Philotas as Royal dude was fond to Koine. Thats not written nowhere on Black and White, but if you think about it, it is only logical.
Thus, the question is, did the Philotas who were fond of Hellenic Culture and speaking Koine got something translated from one Greek Dialect in to another?
Since his commrads and fellow Macedonians of lower class, the peasant
class, had to talk to him through Interpreter?
It is on you to judge
Translation from "Macedonian Greek" in to Koine Greek.
Phrygians were living along the Macedonians for many centuries, and for some reason part of them moved to Anadolia. It is thought that a bulk of Macedonians comprised of Phrygian Element
So you might call this sleight, cause the wanna be Greek Philotas considered him of higher cultural level.
Yea, I can see how he might want to do that.
Alexander and the Royals of his employed Koine, it is a fact, and Philotas as Royal dude was fond to Koine. Thats not written nowhere on Black and White, but if you think about it, it is only logical.
I know Koine was the language of Empire - and Philotas was fond of it.
Thus, the question is, did the Philotas who were fond of Hellenic Culture and speaking Koine got something translated from one Greek Dialect in to another?
Why are you assuming Philotas's native language was a "Greek dialect"? There is absolutely no evidence for that - in fact all the evidence points to contrary. The native language of the Macedonians - was not a Greek dialect.
Since his commrads and fellow Macedonians of lower class, the peasant
class, had to talk to him through Interpreter?
It is on you to judge
Translation from "Macedonian Greek" in to Koine Greek.[/QUOTE]
Phrygians were living along the Macedonians for many centuries, and for some reason part of them moved to Anadolia. It is thought that a bulk of Macedonians comprised of Phrygian Element
So you might call this sleight, cause the wanna be Greek Philotas considered him of higher cultural level.
Yea, I can see how he might want to do that.
Alexander and the Royals of his employed Koine, it is a fact, and Philotas as Royal dude was fond to Koine. Thats not written nowhere on Black and White, but if you think about it, it is only logical.
I know Koine was the language of Empire - and Philotas was fond of it.
Thus, the question is, did the Philotas who were fond of Hellenic Culture and speaking Koine got something translated from one Greek Dialect in to another?
Why are you assuming Philotas's native language was a "Greek dialect"? There is absolutely no evidence for that - in fact all the evidence points to contrary. The native language of the Macedonians - was not a Greek dialect.
Since his commrads and fellow Macedonians of lower class, the peasant
class, had to talk to him through Interpreter?
It is on you to judge
So, from a historical point of view, and given what we know about the native language of the Macedonians - it misrepresents the native language of the ancient Macedonians, as a "Greek dialect".
Why are you assuming Philotas's native language was a "Greek dialect"?
we misunderstand each other bro.
I never did this, but rather refered to the assumption of the Neo Hellenes, that is why I wrote "Greek Macedonian" and used the " " and I guess I forgot the paranteses when I wrote
from one Greek Dialect in to another?
but kind a hoped it is clear that this is hypotetical question.
I hope we understand eachother now.
But I guess that this misunderstanding is cause of my Shtipski writing style, who knows
I was already aware of this event but I enjoyed seeing the passages analysed in more detail.
It reminds me of something Borza once said. It doesn't matter what we think, what matters more is what the Macedonians thought of themselves, and what the Greeks thought of the Macedonians, and based on this alone, they are two distinct races of people.
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