Marcus Justinus - Epitome of Phillip (2nd Century AD)

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  • TheNikoWhiteIch
    • Oct 2014
    • 111

    Originally posted by Philosopher View Post
    A bit too strong, as Herodotus does not state the Macedonians were not Hellenic, though that is the logical inference.
    Actually, you're correct. Though plenty of others have stated exactly that. In any case, I was just looking to put my 2 cents in about the distinction between the Dorian "makednos" and the Macedonian "Makedonikon."


    • Philosopher
      Senior Member
      • Sep 2008
      • 1003

      Originally posted by osiris View Post
      i cant remember where i read the obervation that given the preponderance of "slavic" place names in the peloponese the writer wondered if they predated the middle ages slavic invasion of the peloponese and could those placenames actually be pelasgian. in my opinion its all coming togther, and eventually it will be proven the pelasgians may very well have spoken a langauge if not proto slavic then very closely related to the slavic group.
      Osiris has retired from this forum, hasn't he? I recall Osiris, even from the old Maknews forum, and it has been a long time.