Pilosopher, I don't have much time, so I will write quick response.
But I don't think it should bring anything about! I have my reasons and you have your reasons!
The so called actual evidence is stand alone evidence. Even the Moses law recognized the need of at least two witnesses.
All we are left is the Bible and dependence on it alone. This you call is internal evidence.
I can't recognize it as such because all those who went of to write stories like the gospel were in position to go back and fort in scripture and quote or misquote anything they liked.
Secular Biblical scholarship have shown that the gospels depend on one another, and each later writer had reduction works to do, to fit their agenda. So they as stand alone can't be seen as more than a one source of evidence.
For example Archbishop Peter Carnley explains:
Although the above comment is now concerning the resurrection, it actually shows what I mean about reduction of the gospels thus we have no four different eyewitnesses reports but rather only one.
Seen in that light, it is absurd to claim that any "inner evidence" has to be taken as historical account or evidence of anything. Rather it is a kyrigma and theology that we are reading.
If that is true, how are we to believe them that they communicated the message correctly?
They can be suspected for introducing their own interest in the whole thing, as Jeremiah 8:8-9 accuses the scribes, and all you have to prove their consistency is your belief that they were sanctified!
In that way, I can argue for divine inspiration of Hitlers "Mein Kampf"
I have other problems with the Gospels. For example Luke 1:1 tells us that: "Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled[Or been surely believed] among us.."
My problem is where are those accounts? We know that there are many non canonical gospels, and why are they not considered as such?
Well it is so, because someone decided to make a choice which should be considered true or false!
Why is someone making that decision for me? How can I know that this people were "inspired" by God to do so, and that in their sinful state they did not make false choice?
Another problem with all those gospels and why it's so called "inner evidence" is not trustworthy is because they have clear agenda!
In actuality they are religious propaganda! They have but one goal to make people believe and join the creed!
That this was process in development, we can only conclude from the so called synoptic v.s. Johanine gospel!
In the synoptics the topic of salvation is clear as day! Do good works, forgive each other and God will forgive you! Only some reductionist passages mention belief and faith!
Johanine gospel on the other hand renders the good works obsolete and only belief and faith is the means for salvation!
So, why is this so? Put in time line Johns gospel is the latest, thus there is very little doubt that for Johns writer the belief and faith thing is mandatory cause he was obviously confronted with disbelief in the accounts of the other gospels!
So is it really that necessary to believe in something that is self evidently true such as God is, or is it mandatory for people of certain creed to believe their version of God?
Good works and love your neighbor won't bind you to the creed and church! You don't need creed or church to be good person!
But belief will bind you, and that is exactly what the John and the late church wanted!
The gospel as accounts are not disinterested sources! They have clear agenda, they depend on each other and they are not reliable.
How should I believe to Marks account when it says to me:
How am I to know that their meeting was not invented by her, or if the Demons did not make her give false testimony?
Can you grasp the huge problem that this verse poses for reliability of this account?
I can go on all day long, and I won't stop you from your apologies, so I will leave it at that!
And about your complaint of my disbelief.
Well if you honestly read the gospels, they clearly say that I don't believe because Jesus did not reveal God to me (Matthew 11:25-27), so I am in no position to believe.
According to Mark or the church reduction of Mark rather speaking:
Do you really understand what that says? Others are fed with parables so that they not understand anything and be not forgiven!
Not all are to be forgiven, thus the outsiders are left out, at least that is what the Church want us to believe, and since I don't believe and dismiss your "inner evidence", it is only where Jesus wanted me to be!
I am predestined for destruction, praise to the Lord! Alleluia!
So we come to the claim of yours that "if it does not align with my thinking blah blah." That is not the reason why I dismiss them. But still, if God was to create this world which is impartial towards everybody, than I can't believe that God as he is can be partial and favoring certain groups of people! And that is exactly the reason why the Bible is not to be trusted, as show above and in other posts!
By the way, may be I would believe if at least you as firm believer show me some of this:
He said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation. Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned. And these signs will accompany those who believe: In my name they will drive out demons; they will speak in new tongues; they will pick up snakes with their hands; and when they drink deadly poison, it will not hurt them at all; they will place their hands on sick people, and they will get well.”
Mark 16:17-18
How about demonstration of your belief? I will mix up deadly poison and you drink it! If you don't die, I will believe anything you say!
Why should I give you the benefit of doubt and not to the one you claim his information is partly erroneous?
He claims exactly as you claim knowledge about the matter! He goes on and gives etymology etc. etc.
Above all, he also claims that he is believer! So he must have received the Holy Spirit, and this holy spirit should have prevented him from making the "error" you claim he made!
Why didn't the Holy Spirit inspire him and prevent him from being erroneous?
If I have to chose to whom I believe, I would say to non of you!
Go and google "what does aion mean" and tell me which one is pleasing to you, I will than consider it!
I know Koine Greek so far that I can read up in dictionary!
As for misinterpreting the word Aion with Kosmos, well this same word is used in the sense of the contemporary world of affairs, not the physical world. The world of humans with the whole of their affairs, thus, HEY who knows, maybe you have to go and learn more Greek.
But if the Koine Language is predisposition to understand the Bible, than the Bible fails miserable in communicating its message!
He had simple reason why he didn't do that what you ask!
He had agenda to preach Kyrigma, Theology. He is a fan of fulfilled prophecies that he actually takes all out of context!
And the holocaust is in what extent less catastrophic event for the Jews? They were persecuted through out whole Europe and Russia and were killed like a animals!
There were more Jews killed in holocaust than in Roman Wars, so how is that less of tribulation for you?
The notion of "in rebellion to God" is interesting! Your hate for the Jews is though understanding!
Their religion renders your invalid and that is what makes you angry at them!
If it was in rebellion to God, why didn't God step in and prevent it from happening. But rather you will tell me that he will wait for certain moment in uncertain future to handle things that need immediate reaction!
Also to pretend that Jesus is speaking only for Jews is introduction of non existing information into the text.
Palestine of the time is occupied by Romans and there were many other Groups living there. Many allegedly became believers and possibly followers!
It is your hypothesis, there is no mention of any Jewish Age, it is your construct.
You can't prove that it was exclusive Jewish audience!
In those times Palestine was under Roman Empire, there were many different people living there!
Some gospels even show Roman centurion or Sarmatians that believed Jesus! How can you prove that those people did not became followers?
Just for that fact, your statement that the audience is pure Jewish is falsehood at best!
Here is another commentary, just for you:
It is exactly as I said previously! The word age can be translated as world of human affairs, the present evil world, etc. See it must not be taken as literal, but it can have a metaphysic and metaphoric sense.
So, you can't really prove that the word "aion" in Matthew 24 strictly refers to Jewish Age, but the Bible and it's translations show that the word "aion" can be understood as I said.
So tell me what would Jesus end in Matthew 24?
It can be definitely the "present evil world" or "present evil age" which we need to be delivered from by God i.e. the so called end of the world, as spoken in 2 Peter 3!
If the Church is the Kingdom of God, than I don't want to have any part of it, cause the church have shown to be worst than Sodom and Gomorrah with all it's pedophile tendencies. And when saying that, what do you mean, which Church you mean, Roman, Orthodox, Protestant?
If each believer is the Kingdom of God, than I am not confident that this is in any really moral and righteous Kingdom at all, since looking at the Christians who supposedly love their neighbors have been killing, murdering etc. etc. But hey than it will fit to the picture with the old Testament, wouldn't you mind?
Instead of petty excuses such as that, what could it mean, look at 2 Peter 3:13 where he says what it might be: "But in keeping with his promise we are looking forward to a new heaven and a new earth, where righteousness dwells. "
I neither see righteousnesses in the Church that was persecuting anyone that does not believe, starting wars of any kind, justified events as holocaust nor in the Christian masses that are participating in the crimes of the Church.
So the Kingdom of God did not come, not yet, specially not in the Church of today.
And now we come why you can't be trusted!
When discussing anything one has to attach the right Ideas on the right words!
What you do all the time is to jump from literal to symbolic meaning of words, and this is done when it fits you! (See above about aion)
There is no reason to think that the literal sun, moon and stars are not meant here, when you take the ride on the cloud as literal! And that this is so is seen from your on the fly apology which does not consider the shaking of the heavenly bodies! You don't have any idea what that might be in relation to the Jews! How do you imagine that the darkening of the sun could be to darken the Glory of God? Is he somehow hijacked and he went missing? Since when is the moon the oracle?
You are grasping at straws here!
Other than that, this is typical apocalyptic imagery which we ought to take as serious event in the future!
Take the most popular apocalyptic book:
So are we to think that this is also imagery of the fall of the Jewish nation?
Common you gotta be kidding me.
You are misinterpreting my words! I don't say that words don't have any meaning!
But words have to be attached to right Ideas if we are to understand each other! In the case of the gospel writers I don't disbelieve the words, but the writers and their interests and intentions! They are not disinterested sources!
Second, I would not dismiss any disinterested document just like that, specially not when it will come from someone that is not disciple of Jesus!
According to your belief, Jesus should have been floating into the sky so that Romans and Jews could have seen him! That must have induced enormous interest in every aspect.
Well, here is the catch, if some secular historian have seen this, and according to the description it is highly doubtful that everyone would have missed the event, than we could have something like "Hey this is in deed mysterious land, I just saw a floating man in the sky!"
But not just that we don't have such account, but we don't even slightly remote to that, something like second hand report, where secular scholar would say something like "Hey this people have seen a floating man in the Sky!".
Secular scholar would be Roman or Jew, it does not really matter!.
But what we have is your belief and the Gospel writers who had their own agenda and propaganda, and most probably you are misinterpreting them too!
As for the so called "they went lost" sort of argument!. Well that is only a dodge. You can in no possible way prove that anyone wrote anything!
We have cases of lost sources that are mentioned by others, so considering the immense importance and highly supernatural event such as floating on cloud, we will expect that many people have seen it and many have written about it!
Yet, all we have is glaring gap and your belief!
Sorry, I don't see any proof of your belief there!
I haven't seen any such divided theories, to say the least, I first time heard from you about any supposed Jewish Age! All I find is gullible Christian videos and pages that are highly doubtful.
And about the thief thing! He didn't refuse to give a date, He said that he does not know the date! That is a huge difference, and your way of putting it is only a way how to avoid the obvious, because he is not same as God, but rather only God knows the time and date!
That is only typical of you apologists!
You complain about context all the time, but than when you need it, you just throw verses around with out any context at all!
If I would bother, which now I won't, I am certain that those passages are to be understood at least partially different than you want them to present them here!
I am sorry that I can't play with you any longer, but I really have job to do!
So think and do what you will, it is your life! Save your self as virgin for your groom Christ if you prefer, I don' really care!
But I don't think it should bring anything about! I have my reasons and you have your reasons!
Originally posted by Philosopher
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All we are left is the Bible and dependence on it alone. This you call is internal evidence.
I can't recognize it as such because all those who went of to write stories like the gospel were in position to go back and fort in scripture and quote or misquote anything they liked.
Secular Biblical scholarship have shown that the gospels depend on one another, and each later writer had reduction works to do, to fit their agenda. So they as stand alone can't be seen as more than a one source of evidence.
For example Archbishop Peter Carnley explains:
The presence of discrepancies might be a sign of historicity if we had four clearly independent but slightly different versions of the story, if only for the reason that four witnesses are better than one. But, of course, it is now impossible to argue that what we have in the four gospel accounts of the empty tomb are four contemporaneous but independent accounts of the one event. Modern redactional studies of the traditions account for the discrepancies as literary developments at the hand of later redactors of what was originally one report of the empty tomb... There is no suggestion that the tomb was discovered by different witnesses on four different occasions, so it is in fact impossible to argue that the discrepancies were introduced by different witnesses of the one event; rather, they can be explained as four different redactions for apologetic and kerygmatic reasons of a single story originating from one source.
Peter Carnley, The Structure of Resurrection Belief (New York: Oxford, 1987), p. 47.
Peter Carnley, The Structure of Resurrection Belief (New York: Oxford, 1987), p. 47.
Seen in that light, it is absurd to claim that any "inner evidence" has to be taken as historical account or evidence of anything. Rather it is a kyrigma and theology that we are reading.
Originally posted by Philosopher
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They can be suspected for introducing their own interest in the whole thing, as Jeremiah 8:8-9 accuses the scribes, and all you have to prove their consistency is your belief that they were sanctified!
In that way, I can argue for divine inspiration of Hitlers "Mein Kampf"
I have other problems with the Gospels. For example Luke 1:1 tells us that: "Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled[Or been surely believed] among us.."
My problem is where are those accounts? We know that there are many non canonical gospels, and why are they not considered as such?
Well it is so, because someone decided to make a choice which should be considered true or false!
Why is someone making that decision for me? How can I know that this people were "inspired" by God to do so, and that in their sinful state they did not make false choice?
Another problem with all those gospels and why it's so called "inner evidence" is not trustworthy is because they have clear agenda!
In actuality they are religious propaganda! They have but one goal to make people believe and join the creed!
That this was process in development, we can only conclude from the so called synoptic v.s. Johanine gospel!
In the synoptics the topic of salvation is clear as day! Do good works, forgive each other and God will forgive you! Only some reductionist passages mention belief and faith!
Johanine gospel on the other hand renders the good works obsolete and only belief and faith is the means for salvation!
So, why is this so? Put in time line Johns gospel is the latest, thus there is very little doubt that for Johns writer the belief and faith thing is mandatory cause he was obviously confronted with disbelief in the accounts of the other gospels!
So is it really that necessary to believe in something that is self evidently true such as God is, or is it mandatory for people of certain creed to believe their version of God?
Good works and love your neighbor won't bind you to the creed and church! You don't need creed or church to be good person!
But belief will bind you, and that is exactly what the John and the late church wanted!
The gospel as accounts are not disinterested sources! They have clear agenda, they depend on each other and they are not reliable.
How should I believe to Marks account when it says to me:
When Jesus rose early on the first day of the week, he appeared first to Mary Magdalene, out of whom he had driven seven demons.
Mark 16:9
Mark 16:9
Can you grasp the huge problem that this verse poses for reliability of this account?
I can go on all day long, and I won't stop you from your apologies, so I will leave it at that!
And about your complaint of my disbelief.
Well if you honestly read the gospels, they clearly say that I don't believe because Jesus did not reveal God to me (Matthew 11:25-27), so I am in no position to believe.
According to Mark or the church reduction of Mark rather speaking:
He told them, “The secret of the kingdom of God has been given to you. But to those on the outside everything is said in parables so that,
“‘they may be ever seeing but never perceiving,
and ever hearing but never understanding;
otherwise they might turn and be forgiven!”
Mark 4:11-12
“‘they may be ever seeing but never perceiving,
and ever hearing but never understanding;
otherwise they might turn and be forgiven!”
Mark 4:11-12
Not all are to be forgiven, thus the outsiders are left out, at least that is what the Church want us to believe, and since I don't believe and dismiss your "inner evidence", it is only where Jesus wanted me to be!
I am predestined for destruction, praise to the Lord! Alleluia!
So we come to the claim of yours that "if it does not align with my thinking blah blah." That is not the reason why I dismiss them. But still, if God was to create this world which is impartial towards everybody, than I can't believe that God as he is can be partial and favoring certain groups of people! And that is exactly the reason why the Bible is not to be trusted, as show above and in other posts!
By the way, may be I would believe if at least you as firm believer show me some of this:
He said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation. Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned. And these signs will accompany those who believe: In my name they will drive out demons; they will speak in new tongues; they will pick up snakes with their hands; and when they drink deadly poison, it will not hurt them at all; they will place their hands on sick people, and they will get well.”
Mark 16:17-18
Originally posted by Philosopher
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He claims exactly as you claim knowledge about the matter! He goes on and gives etymology etc. etc.
Above all, he also claims that he is believer! So he must have received the Holy Spirit, and this holy spirit should have prevented him from making the "error" you claim he made!
Why didn't the Holy Spirit inspire him and prevent him from being erroneous?
If I have to chose to whom I believe, I would say to non of you!
Go and google "what does aion mean" and tell me which one is pleasing to you, I will than consider it!
Originally posted by Philosopher
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As for misinterpreting the word Aion with Kosmos, well this same word is used in the sense of the contemporary world of affairs, not the physical world. The world of humans with the whole of their affairs, thus, HEY who knows, maybe you have to go and learn more Greek.
But if the Koine Language is predisposition to understand the Bible, than the Bible fails miserable in communicating its message!
Originally posted by Philosopher
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He had agenda to preach Kyrigma, Theology. He is a fan of fulfilled prophecies that he actually takes all out of context!
Originally posted by Philosopher
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There were more Jews killed in holocaust than in Roman Wars, so how is that less of tribulation for you?
The notion of "in rebellion to God" is interesting! Your hate for the Jews is though understanding!
Their religion renders your invalid and that is what makes you angry at them!
If it was in rebellion to God, why didn't God step in and prevent it from happening. But rather you will tell me that he will wait for certain moment in uncertain future to handle things that need immediate reaction!
Also to pretend that Jesus is speaking only for Jews is introduction of non existing information into the text.
Palestine of the time is occupied by Romans and there were many other Groups living there. Many allegedly became believers and possibly followers!
It is your hypothesis, there is no mention of any Jewish Age, it is your construct.
Originally posted by Philosopher
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In those times Palestine was under Roman Empire, there were many different people living there!
Some gospels even show Roman centurion or Sarmatians that believed Jesus! How can you prove that those people did not became followers?
Just for that fact, your statement that the audience is pure Jewish is falsehood at best!
Originally posted by Philosopher
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Galatians 1:4:
The "world" being referred to here is the Greek aion and means "age"—a time period. The "present evil world" or "present evil age" which we need to be delivered from by God could be a reference to the strong influence the Jews had on the Galatians, as well as the Jews' wish to bind them (the Galatians) to the traditions and ordinances they had added to God's instruction, which He calls "burdens" elsewhere
Hebrews 11:3
The word "worlds" is translated from the Greek aion, meaning "age," in the sense of a period of time or a dispensation. It derives from a root that means "continued," and it is used as "world" only when "world" gives a better sense of a period of time, not the physical creation. It could be used if one said "the world that then was" or "the world to come."
Read more: http://www.bibletools.org/index.cfm/...#ixzz1G62CoPOC
The "world" being referred to here is the Greek aion and means "age"—a time period. The "present evil world" or "present evil age" which we need to be delivered from by God could be a reference to the strong influence the Jews had on the Galatians, as well as the Jews' wish to bind them (the Galatians) to the traditions and ordinances they had added to God's instruction, which He calls "burdens" elsewhere
Hebrews 11:3
The word "worlds" is translated from the Greek aion, meaning "age," in the sense of a period of time or a dispensation. It derives from a root that means "continued," and it is used as "world" only when "world" gives a better sense of a period of time, not the physical creation. It could be used if one said "the world that then was" or "the world to come."
Read more: http://www.bibletools.org/index.cfm/...#ixzz1G62CoPOC
So, you can't really prove that the word "aion" in Matthew 24 strictly refers to Jewish Age, but the Bible and it's translations show that the word "aion" can be understood as I said.
So tell me what would Jesus end in Matthew 24?
It can be definitely the "present evil world" or "present evil age" which we need to be delivered from by God i.e. the so called end of the world, as spoken in 2 Peter 3!
Originally posted by Philosopher
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If each believer is the Kingdom of God, than I am not confident that this is in any really moral and righteous Kingdom at all, since looking at the Christians who supposedly love their neighbors have been killing, murdering etc. etc. But hey than it will fit to the picture with the old Testament, wouldn't you mind?
Instead of petty excuses such as that, what could it mean, look at 2 Peter 3:13 where he says what it might be: "But in keeping with his promise we are looking forward to a new heaven and a new earth, where righteousness dwells. "
I neither see righteousnesses in the Church that was persecuting anyone that does not believe, starting wars of any kind, justified events as holocaust nor in the Christian masses that are participating in the crimes of the Church.
So the Kingdom of God did not come, not yet, specially not in the Church of today.
Originally posted by Philosopher
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When discussing anything one has to attach the right Ideas on the right words!
What you do all the time is to jump from literal to symbolic meaning of words, and this is done when it fits you! (See above about aion)
There is no reason to think that the literal sun, moon and stars are not meant here, when you take the ride on the cloud as literal! And that this is so is seen from your on the fly apology which does not consider the shaking of the heavenly bodies! You don't have any idea what that might be in relation to the Jews! How do you imagine that the darkening of the sun could be to darken the Glory of God? Is he somehow hijacked and he went missing? Since when is the moon the oracle?
You are grasping at straws here!
Other than that, this is typical apocalyptic imagery which we ought to take as serious event in the future!
Take the most popular apocalyptic book:
I watched as he opened the sixth seal. There was a great earthquake. The sun turned black like sackcloth made of goat hair, the whole moon turned blood red, and the stars in the sky fell to earth, as figs drop from a fig tree when shaken by a strong wind.
Revelation 6:12-13
Revelation 6:12-13
Common you gotta be kidding me.
Originally posted by Philosopher
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But words have to be attached to right Ideas if we are to understand each other! In the case of the gospel writers I don't disbelieve the words, but the writers and their interests and intentions! They are not disinterested sources!
Second, I would not dismiss any disinterested document just like that, specially not when it will come from someone that is not disciple of Jesus!
According to your belief, Jesus should have been floating into the sky so that Romans and Jews could have seen him! That must have induced enormous interest in every aspect.
Well, here is the catch, if some secular historian have seen this, and according to the description it is highly doubtful that everyone would have missed the event, than we could have something like "Hey this is in deed mysterious land, I just saw a floating man in the sky!"
But not just that we don't have such account, but we don't even slightly remote to that, something like second hand report, where secular scholar would say something like "Hey this people have seen a floating man in the Sky!".
Secular scholar would be Roman or Jew, it does not really matter!.
But what we have is your belief and the Gospel writers who had their own agenda and propaganda, and most probably you are misinterpreting them too!
As for the so called "they went lost" sort of argument!. Well that is only a dodge. You can in no possible way prove that anyone wrote anything!
We have cases of lost sources that are mentioned by others, so considering the immense importance and highly supernatural event such as floating on cloud, we will expect that many people have seen it and many have written about it!
Yet, all we have is glaring gap and your belief!
Sorry, I don't see any proof of your belief there!
Originally posted by Philosopher
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And about the thief thing! He didn't refuse to give a date, He said that he does not know the date! That is a huge difference, and your way of putting it is only a way how to avoid the obvious, because he is not same as God, but rather only God knows the time and date!
Originally posted by Philosopher
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You complain about context all the time, but than when you need it, you just throw verses around with out any context at all!
If I would bother, which now I won't, I am certain that those passages are to be understood at least partially different than you want them to present them here!
I am sorry that I can't play with you any longer, but I really have job to do!
So think and do what you will, it is your life! Save your self as virgin for your groom Christ if you prefer, I don' really care!
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