We all know that Alexander and the Macedonian aristocrats used Koine; we further know that even though Koine was already established in the Mediterranean world, Alexander's usage of it for his Empire made Koine even more important.
My question: Since the ancient Macedonians used Koine, do you think it fair and right for modern Macedonians to claim Koine equally to themselves, as do modern Greeks? This, of course, assumes that the Macedonians spoke a Slavic language family in everyday life, and not a varation of Greek. I do not believe the evidence undergirds that the Macedonians used Hellenic as the natural tongue.
In other words, does Koine belong just as much to Macedonians as it does to Greeks? In this sense, it would be wrong to argue that Koine was limited to Greek at all. And since many ethnic Macedonians used Greek, whether Koine or not, such as Aristotle, can not the Macedonians claim that Koine or the Hellenic used by the Macedonians, such as Aristotle, equally belongs to them?
I have read this argument or a variation thereof by Risto Stefov, when he argued that Koine is not Greek.
My question: Since the ancient Macedonians used Koine, do you think it fair and right for modern Macedonians to claim Koine equally to themselves, as do modern Greeks? This, of course, assumes that the Macedonians spoke a Slavic language family in everyday life, and not a varation of Greek. I do not believe the evidence undergirds that the Macedonians used Hellenic as the natural tongue.
In other words, does Koine belong just as much to Macedonians as it does to Greeks? In this sense, it would be wrong to argue that Koine was limited to Greek at all. And since many ethnic Macedonians used Greek, whether Koine or not, such as Aristotle, can not the Macedonians claim that Koine or the Hellenic used by the Macedonians, such as Aristotle, equally belongs to them?
I have read this argument or a variation thereof by Risto Stefov, when he argued that Koine is not Greek.
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