Dorian Tribe

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  • Wanderer
    Junior Member
    • Nov 2009
    • 48

    Dorian Tribe

    I was asked to open a thread ,for discussion,so I did.

    I dont know if these historical documents are common knowledge in Macedonia,but in Greece they do.
    It is known that The Dorians were one of the three major tribes into which the ancient Greeks divided themselves.Ionians and Aeolians ,were the other two tribes.Dorians,though their common origin,usually had hostile actions towards each other.Dorians had a unique Greek Dialect ,which distinguish them from the rest Greeks.There is a myth,a widely believed theory in ancient times,telling that Dorians derive from the mountains of Epirus and South Macedonia.Under some circumstances,the tribes splitted,and they fled to a)Macedonia b)Lacedaimona(Sparta) c)East Crete d)Magna Grecia(Sicily) e)Rhodes.More precisely :Though most of the Doric invaders settled in the Peloponnese, they also settled on Rhodes and Sicily, in what is now southern Italy. In Asia Minor existed the Dorian Hexapolis (the six great Dorian cities): Halikarnassos (Halicarnassus) and Knidos (Cnidus) in Asia Minor, Kos, and Lindos, Kameiros, and Ialyssos on the island of Rhodes. These six cities would later become rivals with the Ionian cities of Asia Minor. The Dorians also invaded Crete. These origin traditions remained strong into classical times: Thucydides saw the Peloponnesian War in part as "Ionians fighting against Dorians" and reported the tradition that the Syracusans in Sicily were of Dorian descent.Other such "Dorian" colonies, originally from Corinth, Megara, and the Dorian islands, dotted the southern coasts of Sicily from Syracuse to Selinus.
    People who spoke the Doric dialect lived along the coast of the Peloponnese, in Crete, various cities of Southern Italy and Sicily, Numerous historians link Doric, North-Western Greek and Ancient Macedonian. In later periods other dialects predominated, most notably the Attic, upon which the Koine or common Greek language of the Hellenistic period was based. The main characteristic of Doric was the preservation of Indo-European [aː], long <α>, which in Attic-Ionic became, Tsakonian Greek, a descendant of Doric Greek and source of great interest to linguists, is extraordinarily still spoken in some regions of the Southern Argolid coast of the Peloponnese, on the coast of the modern prefecture of Arcadia.
    In the 5th century BC, Dorians and Ionians were the two most politically important Greek, whose ultimate clash resulted in the Peloponnesian War.

    However,if we accept this theory,we must consider Ancient Macedonians as Hellenes.Or then we should consider Spartans,Macedonians etc.as non Hellenes.I would be happy for a civilized discussion.

    P.S. I admit that I took some parts from bibliographies,so to be more historical accurate.I think the text is not that accurate,but i will add more parts,when I will find suitable notes.
  • Sovius
    Member
    • Apr 2009
    • 241

    #2
    Hi Wanderer, How’re you doing today?

    Anthropological evidence presently indicates that indigenous Southeastern European populations carrying the P37.2 genetic marker merged in various ways over time with North African and Middle Eastern populations carrying the M35 and M172 markers in and around the southern Illyrian Peninsula, known as Greece among proponents of 19th Century Classicism. Given the amalgamated structure of the ancient Achaean language, I would have to say that the Macedonians, Dorians and Athenians (who I believe you are classifying as “Hellenes”) were all culturally related to one another prior to the advent of inter-regional economic activity around the Mediterranean. Due to its central location among civilizations engaged in trade, this region, the urban centers around the Southern Illyrian Peninsula to the south of what is commonly regarded as Macedonia Proper, culturally diverged over time due to a great influx of populations, creating what has commonly, though, erroneously, come to be referred to as the Greek language. By the time of what I have come to view as the Macedonian reclamation of the Southern Illyrian lands (others might prefer the term southern Thracian or Southern Macedonian lands) these three individual cultures, while still retaining numerous similarities, had diverged to the point where they no longer viewed themselves as being related, nor could Macedonians, unless they were familiar with the Achaean creole language communicate with Athenians, even though, as Justinus had indirectly noted, the ancestors of both the Macedonians and Athenians had built Athens and at one time must have viewed one another as kindred peoples.

    Comment

    • George S.
      Senior Member
      • Aug 2009
      • 10116

      #3
      I would like to state the the evidence that the Dorians & Macedonians were the same people is very obscure.From what we know the TRojan war was mean't to be only of Greek stock to fight the Trojans.Macedonia was specifically excluded.Also there's evidence to say that the Macedonians & Greeks were just neighbours it's like comparing chalk & cheese.Also Macedonia if it was Greek why was she excluded from participating in the olympic games.To draw a longbow based on current evidence & conclude that Macedonia was Greek is utterly false.Also from other evidence proves a point that
      there were differences in the two races that they weren't kindred ie related.The Greeks practised slavery the Macedonians didn't.THe Macedonians weren't a state of Greece.The Macedonians were a kingdom with a king.Also Aristotle was banished from Greece for specifically of being Macedonian.
      Also we see the Macedonians & Greeks fighting each other why would two like people fight each other.Clearly they were different.
      IF Greece & Macedonia were the same people why did Greece wage war onMacedonia with two Anti Macedonian wars.Also If Greece & Macedonia are the same people why did the Romans make two different Provinces one Macedonia & one of Greece real clear distinctions were made.Also biblical references & differences ST Paul went toAthens Greece first with the message (gospel) & was turned away .He said to themMen of Athens(greece)i marvel that you are turned away by belief in Myths.etc
      So St Paul took his message(gospel)to Macedonia(who received the gospel openly)Notice the differences.Macedonia received christianity ahead of Greece.We call it Prvoslav(first belief) thats how orthodox religion started.
      So to say that theDorians were the same as the Macedonians & were related to the Greeks is sheer speculation.
      Last edited by George S.; 11-29-2009, 03:18 PM. Reason: edit
      "Ido not want an uprising of people that would leave me at the first failure, I want revolution with citizens able to bear all the temptations to a prolonged struggle, what, because of the fierce political conditions, will be our guide or cattle to the slaughterhouse"
      GOTSE DELCEV

      Comment

      • Spartan
        Senior Member
        • Sep 2008
        • 1037

        #4
        Originally posted by George S. View Post
        I would like to state the the evidence that the Dorians & Macedonians were the same people is very obscure.From what we know the TRojan war was mean't to be only of Greek stock to fight the Trojans.Macedonia was specifically
        George, the Trojan war took place before the Dorians arrived on the Greek penninsula. The Greeks of Trojan times were not Dorians.

        I have read a few different version of the Illiad, and going by memory, Macedonia is not mentioned in it. I would assume the people who came to be the Macedonians were not known by that name as of yet.

        The illiad was written around 800 bc if im not mistaken. It tells about events that happenned (around)400 yrs prior to that. So we are talking about a very long time ago - 1200 bc give or take.
        Last edited by Spartan; 11-29-2009, 11:08 PM.

        Comment

        • George S.
          Senior Member
          • Aug 2009
          • 10116

          #5
          Thanks Spartan i was talking about 1000-1200 bc I checked that's when the trojan war happened & the Dorian invasion happened about then..Either way i think people are just stretching it a little to say the Greeks & \Dorians & then the macedonians is the same.Anyway i was regarsless pointing out the differences only & they are differences.The Greek sources some of them are so unreliable that they are useless some things were written hundreds & even thousands of years after the event.people can write anything & put a different slant on things with a bit of massage.I'm only pointing out obvious differences that existed to make us think.
          I know that early in history the Macedonians were neighbours & referred to the Greeks as Danians,eventually to Achaens.What i'm saying here why take things out of context & don't assume that a greek writer writing hundreds of years after the event will write exactly.Also don't forget Hellenisation was practiced in ancient times as well,Taking other people's history & call it their own.
          Last edited by George S.; 11-29-2009, 09:53 PM. Reason: edit.
          "Ido not want an uprising of people that would leave me at the first failure, I want revolution with citizens able to bear all the temptations to a prolonged struggle, what, because of the fierce political conditions, will be our guide or cattle to the slaughterhouse"
          GOTSE DELCEV

          Comment

          • Bill77
            Senior Member
            • Oct 2009
            • 4545

            #6
            Originally posted by Spartan View Post
            George, the Trojan war took place before the Dorians arrived on the Greek penninsula. The Greeks of Trojan times were not Dorians.

            I have read a few different version of the Illiad, and going by memory, Macedonia is not mentioned in it. I would assume the people who came to be the Macedonians were not known by that name as of yet.

            The illiad was written around 800 bc if im not mistaken. It tells about events that happenned (around)800 yrs prior to that. So we are talking about a very long time ago - 1600 bc give or take.
            I know very little about this subject so its way out of my League. But i do have some questions Spartan. If what you say is corect that Trojan war took place before the Dorians arrived on the Greek Penninsula, Then are you not proving wanderer's post as not quite correct?

            Here is his quote in his first post, "As you know,Spartans and Macedonians,were of the same tribe,the Dorian."

            My understanding is the Spartans were involved in the trojan war "Trojan War was waged against the city of Troy by the Achaeans (Greeks) after Paris of Troy stole Helen from her husband Menelaus, the king of Sparta. "

            Therfor, its out of A) Dorians were well and truly in the Greek penninsula, if the theory is corect about Spartans are a Dorian Tribe or B) spartans are not part of the Dorians if its true what you say.

            Also, Trojan war was a myth. Is this corect? so how can we search for and discuss evidence if its not there.

            sory for my naivety.

            Thanks for your response in advanced.
            Last edited by Bill77; 11-29-2009, 09:58 PM.
            http://www.macedoniantruth.org/forum/showthread.php?p=120873#post120873

            Comment

            • Spartan
              Senior Member
              • Sep 2008
              • 1037

              #7
              Originally posted by Bill77 View Post

              My understanding is the Spartans were involved in the trojan war "Trojan War was waged against the city of Troy by the Achaeans (Greeks) after Paris of Troy stole Helen from her husband Menelaus, the king of Sparta. " Therfor, its out of A) Dorians were well and truly in the Greek penninsula, if the theory is corect about Spartans are a Dorian Tribe or B) spartans are not part of the Dorians if its true what you say.

              Thanks for your response in advanced.
              The Dorians came after this, ie The Spartans of Thermopolyea and the Peloponnesian wars were of primarily dorian descent.

              Read the first paragraph, it touches upon what we are discussing

              Last edited by Spartan; 07-08-2010, 11:48 AM.

              Comment

              • Soldier of Macedon
                Senior Member
                • Sep 2008
                • 13670

                #8
                The Dorian theory has many noticable flaws and points that are not confirmed in a satisfactory manner. I will elaborate a little more later on, the subject has been touched upon on a few threads like the one below:

                In the name of the blood and the sun, the dagger and the gun, Christ protect this soldier, a lion and a Macedonian.

                Comment

                • Spartan
                  Senior Member
                  • Sep 2008
                  • 1037

                  #9
                  It is a theory, no doubt. When talking about histories from 1200 bc, things definitely get blurry.

                  Comment

                  • George S.
                    Senior Member
                    • Aug 2009
                    • 10116

                    #10
                    SOM thanks for that link it's got everything documented in chronological order.
                    "Ido not want an uprising of people that would leave me at the first failure, I want revolution with citizens able to bear all the temptations to a prolonged struggle, what, because of the fierce political conditions, will be our guide or cattle to the slaughterhouse"
                    GOTSE DELCEV

                    Comment

                    • Soldier of Macedon
                      Senior Member
                      • Sep 2008
                      • 13670

                      #11
                      No problem George, the below 3 sections from the link would be pertinent here:

                      1200 BC to 1000 BC - Dark Ages
                      The end of Mycenaean civilization, language and the Linear B alphabet occured at this point, which corresponds with the period of time in which the (Dorian) Proto-Greek-speakers are likely to have entered the region. It is possible that battles took place that culminated in the Trojan War, as the story was recorded by Homer up to 500 years later, much time had passed for a tradition to develop in which Greece could be claimed as the "original" home of the Greek-speakers. During the the same or near period, constant wars had resulted in the destruction of the Hittite kingdom, which split into several smaller states that were often subordinate to other powers in the region. Africans also seem to have maintained a presence during this period. As there is no distinct Dorian cultural trait surviving in the material record for the two centuries or so after 1200 BC, the time of their arrival is disputed.
                      1000 BC to 800 BC - Dorians and Ionians
                      It was not until the start of the Geometric period at about 950 BC that evidence appears which could be confirmed as the new 'Dorian' culture. The Ionic dialect must have split from 'Dorian' at some point shortly afterwards. The question is, where did they come from? Was their language a hybrid of Mycenaean and Dorian, was it mainly Dorian, or did it split into dialects because one or the other had more admixture from Mycenaean? If the Mycenaeans and Dorians were both Proto-Greek-speakers and related, why the adoption of the foreign Phoenician alphabet and significant contrasts in culture? Which language would have been closer to modern Greek, Dorian or Mycenaean?
                      800 BC - Advent of Hellenes
                      The first signs of Greek-speaking city-states appear, together with a variant of the Phoenician alphabet, originally used to write Semitic languages. Even Africans appear on the Greek coins of Phocis, Delphi, Lesbos, and Athens. The Hittite states disappeared from history at approximately 700 BC.
                      Are the Dorians the original Hellenes?

                      On the link I provided there are important excerpts cited by Napoleon and myself from Herodotus' works, which indicate that the Dorians were the first Hellenes. And the people of Attica, being of Pelasgian blood, must have changed its language too at the time when it became part of the Hellenes (Herodotus).


                      With that in mind, I would like to see the facts and justification behind the theory that the Dorians were the same people (linguistically) as the Mycanaeans, as clearly the cultural change cannot be disputed. I also find it hard to believe that one group (Dorians) came from the north and the other from the east (Ionians) yet somehow they all spoke the Hellenic tongue. Appreciate any thoughts from our Greek members here, namely Spartan and the new Spartan called Wanderer.
                      In the name of the blood and the sun, the dagger and the gun, Christ protect this soldier, a lion and a Macedonian.

                      Comment

                      • Spartan
                        Senior Member
                        • Sep 2008
                        • 1037

                        #12
                        In respect to the Dorian -Myceanean linguistic connection.

                        I think the Myceanians and Dorians were of the same linguistic origin, perhaps even 'tribe'. Those that came to be known as the mycaenians, migrated into the Greek penninsula 1000 yrs or so prior to those who came to be known as the dorians.
                        I would think, considering the relativily high inteligibilty rate between the Greek language from different times, that the Dorians and Myceanians speech was mutually intelligible to some degree.
                        Linear B, which is what the Mycaenian language is preserved in, was translated in the 50s and found to be a primitive/early form of Greek.
                        Dorians we all know spoke greek as well.

                        As for the Ionian - Pelasgian, dont know too much about that, but I look forward to some 'googling'
                        Last edited by Spartan; 12-01-2009, 12:39 AM.

                        Comment

                        • George S.
                          Senior Member
                          • Aug 2009
                          • 10116

                          #13
                          Can someone explain the linear A & linear b Language which is closer to Macedonian?
                          "Ido not want an uprising of people that would leave me at the first failure, I want revolution with citizens able to bear all the temptations to a prolonged struggle, what, because of the fierce political conditions, will be our guide or cattle to the slaughterhouse"
                          GOTSE DELCEV

                          Comment

                          • Soldier of Macedon
                            Senior Member
                            • Sep 2008
                            • 13670

                            #14
                            Originally posted by Spartan
                            I think the Myceanians and Dorians were of the same linguistic origin, perhaps even 'tribe'. Those that came to be known as the mycaenians, migrated into the Greek penninsula 1000 yrs or so prior to those who came to be known as the dorians.
                            That's an interesting suggestion Spartan. Anything in support of this theory? Or to explain why one group of the same tribe would move south 1000 years earlier than the other group, and why there was such a significant cultural and linguistic difference between the Dorians (who I would assume were the dominant element in the making of the Hellenes of the 8th century BC) and their apparent 'cousins' the Mycanaeans?
                            I would think, considering the relativily high inteligibilty rate between the Greek language from different times, that the Dorians and Myceanians speech was mutually intelligible to some degree.
                            That's not exactly a relative comparison Spartan, nor does it have a parallel with what you seem to be making reference to (if you are talking about how Attic is related to Koine, which is related to Romaic, which is related to Modern Greek respectively). For example, there is no way that Attic is related to Mycanaean the way it is to Koine, in fact, Attic is closer to Modern Greek than to Mycanaean. That renders the probability of such a linguistic continuity you suggested above rather weak.
                            Linear B, which is what the Mycaenian language is preserved in, was translated in the 50s and found to be a primitive/early form of Greek.
                            There are still a number of outstanding issues concerning the validity of this decipherment, particularly in relation to sound values and words. Based on what I have seen it appears to be more a primitive form of Indo-European with Semetic admixtures rather than solely a primitive form of Greek. A more probable scenario, in my opinion, is that the Dorians migrated into Attica and the Peloponnese and wreaked complete havoc on the inhabitants, which almost completely changed the elements that were pre-existent, destroying most, but absorbing some (like placenames for example). The commonalities between Mycanaean and Dorian would therefore differ little from one IE language to another, there are words like 'ove' and 'sito' that easily correspond with today's Macedonian, such as 'uvo' and zhito' (both having the same meanings as the Mycanaean words).

                            Herodotus is one of the first to mention these stories, and if we are to assess his works it gets even more complicated by the fact that the Hellenes correctly recount these kings of the Dorians as far back as Perseus son of Danae.......... farther back than that.....the leaders of the Dorians will be shown to be true-born Egyptians. Now keep in mind that Herodotus also states that the Ionian and Dorian, were the foremost in ancient time, the first a Pelasgian and the second a Hellenic people, and the Attic nation, being of Pelasgian blood, must have changed its language too at the time when it became part of the Hellenes.

                            Messy, isn't it? Nevertheless, it is an extremely interesting topic that I would like to discuss in further detail, should anybody share the same interest and take the time to review all of the sources. I am suprised at the weak foundations of so many theories that are commonly accepted today, I would like to disprove them, or, at least see something solid and credible that confirms them.
                            In the name of the blood and the sun, the dagger and the gun, Christ protect this soldier, a lion and a Macedonian.

                            Comment

                            • Sovius
                              Member
                              • Apr 2009
                              • 241

                              #15
                              The Mycanaeans and Thracians both practiced the tradition of inhumation and the placing of a death mask over deceased nobility. I believe the earliest finds so far in Bulgaria date back to the 4th Century BC, while the Mycenaean burial sites date back to the 16th Century BC. It’s my understanding that the Mycenaeans practiced group burials in tholos tombs, while the Dorians practiced both individual burials and cremation.

                              Cremation is typically regarded as a Bronze Age Central European tradition that carried over into other regions. While these two different forms of burial could simply signify different preferences or different religious practices within the same ethnic group, it could also represent evidence of a blended civilization developing in the area, where different populations came to exist in a more linguistically homogenous manner over time.

                              The practice of cremation in the area could have come about through the presence of Central European militant groups. Kristin Romey, out of Texas A&M, wrote an interesting thesis on the subject of this presence and how it might relate to the so-called “Sea People”. The presence of populations emanating from the Lusatian cultural zone around the Mediterranean region dates back to around the 14th Century BC, I believe. Slashing swords of a Central European variety are also a part of the region’s archeological record.

                              Is the presence of the M458 (R1a1a7) genetic marker in this area of Europe evidence of this event?



                              Source:

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