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Old 05-09-2017, 02:22 AM   #1
Liberator of Makedonija
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Default When did Ancient Macedonian end and Old Macedonian begin?

Starting this thread for any relevant information on when exactly the Ancient Macedonian language stopped being spoken and how it transitioned into the Old Macedonian language of the Middle Ages.
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Old 05-23-2017, 10:21 PM   #2
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Originally Posted by Liberator of Makedonija View Post
Starting this thread for any relevant information on when exactly the Ancient Macedonian language stopped being spoken and how it transitioned into the Old Macedonian language of the Middle Ages.
Detailed information is scarce due to the period in question, but I will start by mentioning two opposing theories as I see them, based on what I have read and discussions I have had with various people.

The Invader Theory: Beginning from the 6th century, people from somewhere near the Carpathian mountains gradually descended on the Balkans and brought a completely foreign ('Slavic') language to the region. The indigenous peoples were either killed, pushed out or assimilated by the newly arrived foreigners. Some cultural elements of the indigenous peoples survived but their languages did not. So, the people of Macedonia ceased speaking Ancient Macedonian and started speaking a completely foreign language which developed into Old Macedonian by the 9th century.

The Autochthonous Theory: The languages of the indigenous peoples of the Balkans were genetically related and extended well beyond the river Danube. Some dialects of this language group (the exact area is debatable) underwent certain linguistic changes, perhaps between the 4th and 6th centuries, due to intense contact with other peoples who spoke foreign languages. This resulted in the gradual formation of a modified common ('Slavic') language which subsequently spread due to various factors from the 6th century onward. One possible reason for the broad adoption of this language or acceptance of its influences in the Balkans and elsewhere was its genetic relationship to the indigenous languages, which could have facilitated changes or a transition. In the case of Macedonia, this would have been completed by the 9th century.

These are just theories. I am open to some interpretation and change if the information is convincing. Personally, I lean more towards the second theory. It's an interesting subject nevertheless. If you have any questions, let me know.
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Old 05-24-2017, 12:32 AM   #3
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I know in John Shea's book 'Macedonia and Greece', he states the Ancient Macedonian language ceased to be spoken by the time of Byzantine rule. He states the decline of the language mainly begun under the reign of Filip II
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